HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam Answers

HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam Answers 2023 [100% Correct]

HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam Answers 2023 : A Beginner’s Guide to HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam is a comprehensive guide for those who are interested in getting certified in Social Media Marketing. This guide will give you an overview of the certification process, what it entails, and what you need to do to take the certification test.

HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam Answers

The HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam is a course that teaches people how to use the software and its features in order to manage their online presence. The course is designed for beginners as well as professionals who have not yet used HubSpot or want a refresher on what they have already learned. Get more HubSpot Certification Answers.

HubSpot Social Media Marketing Certification Exam Details

  • Name of Course: Social Media Marketing Certification Exam
  • There are 70 questions.
  • The exam takes about 1 hour to complete.
  • You must answer 53 questions correctly to pass.
  • You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
  • You have 3 hours to complete the exam.
  • Check your answers before submitting. You can’t go back and change them after you click submit.

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Q.1 – True or false? A buyer persona is as important as business objectives when developing a social media strategy.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.2 – Which network has the longest life for a piece of content?

(A) Facebook

(B) LinkedIn

(C) Snapchat

(D) Pinterest

Q.3 – On which social network should you share content most frequently?

(A) Facebook

(B) LinkedIn

(C) Twitter

(D) Pinterest

Q.4 – True or false? Social listening can help you find leads.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.5 – True or false? Social content is only used during the attract and delight stages of the inbound methodology.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.6 – Fill in the blank: Instagram stories are a great way to _____________.

(A) demonstrate complex concepts quickly and easily

(B) directly message a customer to answer a question

(C) deliver video podcasts

(D) drive traffic and engagement

Q.7 – Why are hashtags helpful?

(A) To aid search, track campaigns, and to influence the creation of user-generated content

(B) To keep track of ephemeral content that disappears

(C) To demonstrate to executives the power of organic reach on a piece of content

(D) All of the above

Q.8 – True or false? It’s necessary to conduct a social media audit every 2–3 years.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.9 – Which of these KPIs demonstrate engagement? Choose all that apply.

(A) Direct sales revenue from social media

(B) Mentions

(C) Sharing and retweets

(D) Likes or Favorites

(E) Customer satisfaction

Q.10 – Which KPI is most likely to be a vanity metric?

(A) Reach

(B) Engagement

(C) Return on Investment (ROI)

(D) Retention and loyalty

Q.11 – True or False? In social media, a service level agreement (SLA) refers to how much time passes between when a customer reaches out and when the company responds.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.12 – True or False? You should revisit your KPIs every 18 months.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.13 – What is the biggest challenge that most social media practitioners have?

(A) Hiring the right number of people

(B) Developing the right amount of content

(C) Getting executive buy-in for social ideas

(D) Retaining customers

Q.14 – True or False? The Holistic model is the most common social team structure used by organizations today.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.15 – Which of the below is not one of the five types of social media models?

(A) Distributed

(B) Dandelion

(C) Holistic

(D) Hub and Spoke

Q.16 – Why would you want a service to help you manage and discover influence?

(A) To help you discover what hashtags are working the best

(B) To determine which channels are the most important

(C) To know what type of customer information to regularly monitor

(D) To identify individuals who have the biggest following and high social clout

Q.17 – True or false? The best way to choose the right social media tool is to think about your business goals, then narrow down your choices based on that goal criteria.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.18 – What do senior leaders care about when it comes to your social media plan? Choose all that apply.

(A) Sentiment

(B) Competitive advantage

(C) Click-through rates

(D) Customer satisfaction

(E) Number of social followers

Q.19 – True or false? Simon Sinek says that people want to buy what you have. They don’t care about what you believe.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.20 – What’s the difference between social listening and social monitoring?

(A) Social listening centralizes conversations about your brand so that you can join them, while social monitoring measures reputation from higher- level perspective.

(B) Social listening involves answering and responding to specifically support questions, while social monitoring is for the purpose of marketing intelligence and research.

(C) Social listening can only be done natively within each social media site, whereas social monitoring requires technology to aggregate sentiment from various places.

(D) Social listening is done by your sales team to find new opportunities, while social monitoring is done by your marketing team to learn what competitors are doing.

Q.21 – How can social media listening increase customer advocacy?

(A) Responding only to positive social posts and re-sharing them tells the rest of your followers how great you are.

(B) Responding only to negative social posts with helpful, knowledgeable responses shows that you care.

(C) Responding to social posts—whether they’re positive or negative— shows that you’re listening, and your customers are being heard.

(D) Responding to a social post within one hour shows that your company is full of social- savvy whippersnappers.

Q.22 – Why should you be careful about monitoring competitors?

(A) Your competitors can tell when you’re monitoring them, and they may get offended and retaliate.

(B) It’s easy to get consumed with competitive intelligence and lose sight of your unique strategy and customer.

(C) Competitors aren’t the only reason people don’t buy your product or service.

(D) Competitive intelligence is best used for highly competitive markets only.

Q.23 – Why do you need to develop a business case for a new social monitoring technology?

(A) It’s an important skill for professionals to be able to analyze and communicate the return on investment expected from their requested budget.

(B) So that after the investment is made, you can go back and see whether it has lived up to expectations.

(C) To clearly outline the expected value gained from a software investment and set the expectation with your manager of how you’ll realize that value.

(D) Social monitoring technology is particularly expensive and difficult to determine a return on investment.

Q.24 – What should you do if your competitor has a big public blunder?

(A) Send my sales team to follow up with every negative post about the incident so that we can take this opportunity to win their business.

(B) Amplify the competitor’s blunder, telling your followers “See this? We would never do this.”

(C) Maintain a helpful approach and have empathy for the company’s missteps. Reply thoughtfully and empathetically to posts where appropriate.

(D) Stay completely silent and make sure your company never experiences the same thing

Q.25 – Why are UTM parameters so valuable to your social listening and monitoring program?

(A) They help my pages load faster via social networks.

(B) They track who initially shared my company’s content out on social media.

(C) They allow me to track where traffic is coming from on social media.

(D) They’re really just a nice-to-have for big marketing campaigns.

Q.26 – “Real-time marketing” refers to:

(A) Developing content on the fly for local, national, or global events happening online or offline.

(B) Developing content on the fly for local, national, or global events happening online only.

(C) Developing content on the fly for local, national, or global events happening offline only.

(D) Developing content and publishing it in the time zone where the majority of your target audience resides.

Q.27 – Let’s say you conduct a content audit on your competitors and see that they’re having success with live video, but you haven’t really tried live video yet. What might you do?

(A) Give up – they’ve already won the space, and it’s doubtful you can catch up at this point.

(B) Immediately start doing live video on every channel to take back your audience.

(C) Test out live video on different channels, and see how your audience responds.

Q.28 – If you don’t have your _____________ in mind as you’re developing content and social campaigns, then you probably aren’t using social as effectively as you could be.

(A) competitors

(B) revenue targets

(C) business goals and buyer personas

(D) budget

Q.29 – True or false? You should make sure experimentation is ingrained in your strategic plan.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.30 – True or false? Humanizing your brand gives you a competitive edge because people like making connections, and they like to invest their time and money in people they can relate to.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.31 – Voice refers to:

(A) The distinct and steady personality or style of your brand.

(B) A particular identity or image that’s regarded as an asset to a company.

(C) The moods and attitudes of specific content pieces, which can change depending on the channel, the situation, and the audience.

(D) The set of human characteristics that are attributed to a brand name.

Q.32 – When developing your brand’s tone, _______ is key.

(A) timing

(B) budget

(C) context

(D) personality

Q.33 – True or false? The longer your social posts, the more likely that content will be seen and re-shared.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.34 – Which of the following is NOT an example of active language you should use on a call-to-action?

(A) “Subscribe here”

(B) “Donate”

(C) “More here”

(D) “Watch”

Q.35 – True or false? Curating content means publishing someone else’s content as if it were your own.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.36 – Posting curated content on social shows your audience you’re committed to:

(A) Creating value for them.

(B) Posting only your own content.

(C) Re-posting all the content that they share with you.

Q.37 – True or false? If you’re posting the same content across different channels, make sure you post them simultaneously—on the same days and at the same times.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.38 – What did fashion brand Burberry do to revolutionize how marketers use social media?

(A) Ran a massive Facebook campaign to advertise their brand to fans

(B) Developed a highly successful public relations campaign that used social media to share their messages

(C) Invited their fans to share photos of their trench coat

(D) Began working with a famous influencer to take over their Instagram feed

Q.39 – Which one of the following is NOT a way that UGC can help marketers?

(A) Provide social proof and amp up your credibility

(B) Boost SEO

(C) Enable you to get past ad blockers because the content doesn’t come through like a typical ad

(D) Extend your budget

(E) Provide deep insight into the effectiveness of your content mix

Q.40 – Which of the following is NOT a type of influencer?

(A) Industry

(B) Content creator

(C) Attorney

(D) Local

(E) Celebrity

Q.41 – True or false? Commissions for celebrity influencers are generally 5% of the sale.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.42 – Which type of influencer might be primarily behind the scenes in your marketing campaign?

(A) Micro-influencers

(B) Celebrity

(C) Local

(D) Content creators

(E) Industry influencers

Q.43 – True or false? A channel takeover, such as letting an influencer run your Instagram or Twitter handle for a day, is a good idea for brands.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.44 – Why should you trust the influencer and give them creative license?

(A) They’re famous.

(B) They understand their audience and what they want.

(C) They might sabotage your brand if you don’t let them do things their way.

(D) They might enlist their famous friends to help your brand.

Q.45 – True or false? Your campaign should also help the influencer build authority and further their own content or reach.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.46 – Why is user-generated content (UGC) so important? Choose all that apply.

(A) UGC helps brands understand their target audience.

(B) UGC improves site engagement and time spent on the website.

(C) UGC provides means for other users to connect, which then builds a stronger community.

(D) UGC is inherently peer reviewed, making it more trustworthy.

Q.47 – True or false? “Earned” media is exposure your brand has paid for, e.g., advertising or promotions.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.48 – True or false? One-to-one engagement doesn’t result in customers spending more.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.49 – True or false? Asking for reviews is something you should never do in social media.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.50 – What is NOT a way that a brand can see financial gain from doing social customer service?

(A) Increased sales

(B) Less returns as individuals do more self-service via social media

(C) Saving money on call center interactions

(D) Using a social media agency to deliver content to customers

Q.51 – What is a Social Media Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

(A) A contract between a service provider and a customer regarding the scope of the in- person or over-the-phone service to be provided

(B) The agreement a company makes to commit to answering social media responses in a specific amount of time

(C) A confidentiality agreement that creates a legal obligation to privacy and compels those who agree to keep any specified information obtained in social media secure

(D) An agreement designed to regulate the relationship between a provider of social media marketing services and a client for those services

Q.52 – True or false? When you use language in your social responses that is too casual, you lose the respect of your audience.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.53 – How much of the buyer’s journey is digital?

(A) 20%

(B) 52%

(C) 90%

(D) 67%

Q.54 – When should a salesperson put forth the sales pitch in social media?

(A) After sufficient rapport has been built and the customer is looking for what you have to sell

(B) After a prospect follows them back on a social channel

(C) After the first casual conversation you have with the person in social media

(D) A month after you follow the prospect on social media

Q.55 – True or false? The world has changed and so has how we think about inbound, which is why advertising should be considered part of your marketing playbook.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.56 – An ad for your upcoming webinar on network security should lead people directly to ___________.

(A) a blog post on network security

(B) your home page

(C) a landing page where they can quickly sign up for the webinar

(D) your About Us page

Q.57 – What is one of the major benefits of Facebook Lead Ads?

(A) Facebook will serve these ads on Pinterest in addition to Facebook.

(B) They only serve your ads to a small group of highly qualified people.

(C) The pre-filled form in Facebook makes it super easy for your audience to convert on—especially on mobile.

(D) They’re optimized for a desktop audience, which is proven to convert better than mobile users.

Q.58 – The number of leads you generate that actually become paying customers is known as your ________.

(A) average conversion rate

(B) average lead-to-customer rate

(C) average revenue

(D) average lifetime value of a customer

Q.59 – Which one of the below choices is NOT a reason you should be measuring your social media ROI?

(A) Prove the value of social media within your organization.

(B) Show how social media can impact all departments, ranging beyond Marketing and Sales to HR to Engineering to PR.

(C) Show influencers how enticing it would be to work with your company.

(D) Understand and measure brand reputation and gain control of that conversation.

Q.60 – You’re starting a project and don’t have a past campaign to use as a benchmark. How can you secure executive buy-in?

(A) Research the costs of agencies that can do the work.

(B) Consider industry research to back up your plan.

(C) Position your program as an experiment or pilot.

(D) Create a robust PowerPoint with statistics to back up your plan.

Q.61 – Which of the following social media expenses do you want to track so you can calculate ROI on your marketing campaigns? Choose all that apply.

(A) Work hours

(B) Agency or freelance costs

(C) Social media software and services

(D) Content development expenses

(E) Advertising costs

Q.62 – True or false? When measuring your social media ROI, you calculate the effectiveness of an action by dividing the net income by the cost of this action and multiplying it by 100.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.63 – Why do you need to use leading indicators of revenue success when calculating ROI on your social media strategy?

(A) It’s difficult to know how much revenue is generated from a sale that originates from a social media campaign.

(B) It can be months before you’ve closed new customers from a social media campaign.

(C) Understanding how you stack up to your competition can help you pivot and make better business decisions.

(D) Calculating ROI on social media is super hard to prove.

Q.64 – True or False? To implement an effective social media strategy, you have to be aware of the legal challenges, not ethical ones.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.65 – A(n) ________ outlines guidelines and best practices for employees to follow on social media.

(A) crisis plan

(B) advocacy plan

(C) social media policy

Q.66 – What’s the first step organizations and brands need to take when establishing a social media policy?

(A) Educate employees on the importance of having a social media policy for all team members within the organization.

(B) Reward the employees who are shining stars and are doing the right things on social media.

(C) Research best case studies for brands that are using social media policies effectively.

(D) Determine what not to do for social media policies for employees.

Q.67 – What is NOT an example of a social media crisis?

(A) Employees going rogue on social media

(B) A celebrity posting an update that sparks outrage

(C) A hack into a Twitter account for a major brand

(D) These are all examples of a social media crisis.

Q.68 – The _________ stage focuses on creating message maps and listening protocols on social media.

(A) preparation

(B) recovery

(C) response

(D) crisis

Q.69 – There are certain actions that need to be taken into consideration for a social media crisis. What’s an action you should avoid?

(A) Pausing marketing emails

(B) Sending out promotional sponsored posts and tweets during a crisis

(C) Assessing the planned blogging and campaign schedule for appropriateness

(D) Creating a blog post to address the situation as needed

Q.70 – True or false: Ephemeral stories are quick bits of content, both video and photo, often with fun filters and “stickers” that disappear after a short period of time (1-24 hours).

(A) True

(B) False

Q.71 – When it comes to social listening, how do you know which social networks to start with?

(A) Start with the social networks your buyer personas use to learn about and interact with brands.

(B) Facebook has over two billion monthly active users, so start there.

(C) Create an account on all of them, and see which ones your audience gravitates towards.

(D) If you haven’t started your social presence by now, unfortunately it’s too late.

Q.72 – How can social media monitoring inform your sales and product teams?

(A) Your competitors’ marketing material can be copied and used for your own product or service.

(B) Your product team can explain to customers exactly why they built that feature a certain way.

(C) Your sales team can listen to their closed/won deals and find great upsell opportunities via social listening.

(D) Customer feedback, whether positive or negative, can help sales people and product teams better solve for the customer’s needs.

Q.73 – True or false? Jumping onto an unrelated hashtag to promote your material is spammy.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.74 – Visual images are usually things like ________. Choose all that apply.

(A) photos

(B) infographics

(C) animated GIFs

(D) illustrations

Q.75 – True or false? 12% of people generate 70% of the impact online.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.76 – True or false? It’s not a good policy to delete all negative comments.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.77 – What is social selling the inbound way?

(A) When a salesperson sends a direct message to a new follower with an offer or request to go to the company’s website

(B) When a salesperson provides value by offering thoughtful content and answering questions for prospects

(C) When a salesperson follows all a prospect’s social media channels and tags them with regular product offers

(D) When a salesperson supplements their social posts with digital advertising

Q.78 – True or false? Canned messages are a quick and easy way to reach a wide audience in social media to find the right prospects.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.79 – Do brands have legal ownership over content that users generate about their brand?

(A) Yes

(B) No

Q.80 – Why is content moderation important for user-generated campaigns?

(A) To copy the content for use on the company website and in other advertising

(B) To engage the community and reward those who go above and beyond

(C) To police any incorrect usage of brand logos and assets

(D) None of the above

Q.81 – What do we mean when we say you should post an “80/20 mix” on social media?

(A) 20% of your social content should promote your own brand, and 80% of your social content should be anything that truly interests your audience and engages them in conversations.

(B) 80% of your social content should promote your brand, and 20% of your social content should be anything that truly interests your audience and engages them in conversations.

(C) 20% of your social content should be video that interests your audience, and 80% should be content that promotes your brand.

Q.82 – Fill in the blank: “Facebook Ads is great for targeting based on _______, while Google Ads targets based on your audience’s ________.

(A) buyer stage; interests

(B) problems; ideas

(C) interests; intent

Q.83 – In what stage of the buyer’s journey would an advertisement for a free trial of your product be most appropriate?

(A) Consideration stage

(B) Decision stage

(C) Awareness stage

(D) Evaluation stage

Q.84 – True or false? It’s always better to target your ads towards as broad a group of people as possible.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.85 – Which of the following would not contribute to ad fatigue?

(A) Using the same image on your ad for over a month

(B) Using only Facebook for your advertising strategy

(C) Offering the same ebook in your ad for two months straight

(D) All of these would contribute to ad fatigue

Q.86 – You bid $5.00 on a click on your Facebook ad. The next highest bidder only pays $3.00 to target an ad at the exact same audience. How much will Facebook make you pay to win the bid?

(A) $2.99

(B) $3.00

(C) $3.01

(D) $5.00

Q.87 – True or false? Evaluating the team dynamics and how each member did in the crisis along with analyzing the reactions, KPIs, and overall response to the crisis happens during the response stage.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.88 – Which of the below is NOT one of the three factors determining how an influencer can impact behavior?

(A) Relevance

(B) Reach

(C) Resonance

(D) Recognition

Q.89 – Why should you talk directly with your social followers and prospects?

(A) Build your brand

(B) Increase customer loyalty

(C) Improve reputation

(D) All of the above

Q.90 – True or false? Selling to prospects by messaging them on Facebook could be seen as invading their private space.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.91 – What should you do to secure executive buy-in if you’re starting a social media project and don’t have a past campaign to use as a benchmark?

(A) Research the costs of agencies that can do the work.

(B) Consider industry research to back up your plan.

(C) Position your program as an experiment or pilot.

(D) Create a robust PowerPoint with statistics to back up your plan

Q.92 – Why do stakeholders matter as you begin to develop your team structure?

(A) Stakeholders help you plan for the future.

(B) Stakeholder needs may be the same as your needs and their buy-in may help you influence senior leaders.

(C) Stakeholders help you decide if you need to develop a team to help you do social advertising.

(D) Stakeholders help you determine how social media for your company will change in the next year, three years, or five years.

Q.93 – True or false? Social media helps people feel INFORMED by helping them learn new things, stay up to date on topics that matter to them, and discover new ideas and trends.

(A) True

(B) False

Q.94 – What is the main benefit of using animated GIFs in social content?

(A) They help you make light of what would otherwise feel like serious content.

(B) They help you demonstrate complex concepts quickly and easily.

(C) They help you show how culturally in-touch you are.

Q.95 – Which of the following is NOT a benefit of having a social media strategy?

(A) Social media helps you expand your other marketing efforts.

(B) Social media helps you attract buyers.

(C) Social media helps you send better emails.

(D) Social media is a key driver for word-of-mouth marketing.

Q.96 – What is a social media audit?

(A) A hard look at the data from all your social accounts and the social conversations about your brand and your competitors

(B) A method to direct your audience in all channels to the best way they can have a conversation with you

(C) A way to reach your customers and prospects in unprecedented ways, with greater reach and more specific targeting than ever before

(D) A tool to look for unhappy customers of a competitor and reach out with an offer to help, thus generating leads

Q.97 – There are many benefits to having a social media strategy. Which answer is NOT one of them?

(A) Social media helps you expand your other marketing efforts.

(B) Social media helps you attract buyers.

(C) Social media helps you send better emails.

(D) Social media is a key driver for word-of-mouth marketing.

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